Sample exam questions from Bio 93 Final Exam: Fall 2012...

Sample exam questions from Bio 93 Final Exam: Fall 2012 Dr. Williams
1. The DNMT gene in humans codes for several enzymes that add methyl groups to DNA. This is an example of:
A. RNA processing
B. Degradation of mRNA
C. Control of DNA replication
D. Chromatin modification
2. In an action potential, the falling phase is triggered by:
A. Opening of voltage gated channels
B. Opening of ligand gated channels
C. Opening of leaky channels
3. A mutation in the gene that codes for fibrinogen causes developmental problems and joint pain in adults.
This is an example of:
A. Pleiotropy
B. Epistasis
C. Codominance
D. Polygenic inheritance
4. The Drosophila oocyte extends microtubules into the nurse cells and dynein transports bicoid into the oocyte
via dynein. Where are the minus ends of the microtubules?
A. Oocytes
B. Nurse cells
5. For a diploid organism whose somatic cells have 2 pairs of homologous chromosomes, which of the following
represents a cell at the end of meiosis 1 ? (letter choices shown under cells)
6. A 2009 article in the British newspaper The Telegraph was titled: “A veterinarian has adopted a tortoiseshell
cat that she claims is a ‘genetic impossibility’ because it is male.” What is the likely genotype of the sex
chromosomes in this cat?
A. X
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7. A cell line is mutated so that it contains nonfunctional kinetochores. Which would happen first?
A. Spindle fibers would not form
B. Chromosomes would not line up at the metaphase plate
C. Chromosomes would not duplicate
D. Sister chromatids would not separate
8. A 2010 research paper examined the effect of a synonymous substitution on the CFTR gene, the malfunction
of which causes the disease cystic fibrosis. Their findings are given below:
CFTR protein
DNA codon
Amino acid
mRNA structure
expression level
(CF disease)
Which conclusion is most consistent with these results?
A. Mutations that do not affect primary amino acid sequence can affect translation efficiency
B. Changes in mRNA folding can affect its insertion into the plasma membrane
C. A mutation in DNA may be corrected when it is transcribed into mRNA
9. A researcher is attempting to create a vaccine that would make a population of coyotes sterile but otherwise
healthy. Which would be the most useful avenue of research to pursue?
A. Prevent chromosome duplication
B. Prevent formation of tetrads
C. Remove dynein from kinetochores
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10. Water molecules are released every time a nucleotide is added to the daughter strand of replicating DNA.
Which of the following is causing this release?
A. Removal of phosphates from the new nucleotide
B. Action of helicase to separate the strands
C. Binding of the nucleotide to the daughter strand
11. A strand of mRNA reads 5’ UGG UUU 3’. What is the sequence of the coding strand of DNA from 5’ to 3’?
12. The disease phenylketonuria (PKU) is caused by a mutation for the gene that codes for the enzyme
phenylalanine hydroxylase. Without a working enzyme, levels of phenylalanine in the blood are high and can
cause mental retardation. A table of hydroxylase activity and phenylalanine concentrations is given here:
Hydroxylase activity
Blood phenylalanine
Has PKU?
100 %
60 uM
30 %
120 uM
0.3 %
> 600 uM
This table indicates:
A. Only homozygous AA individuals produce sufficient hydroxylase to prevent PKU
B. PKU is an autosomal dominant disease
C. Allele A is incompletely dominant over B at the molecular level
13. Pea pods are normally green because they manufacture chlorophyll pigment which is green. The recessive
allele codes for a yellow pod, and yellow-pod plants are generally less vigorous. We can conclude:
A. The recessive allele codes for a nonfunctioning enzyme in the chlorophyll formation pathway
B. Homozygous recessives form recessive chlorophyll pigments
C. Homozygous dominant plants contain twice as much chlorophyll as homozygous recessive plant
14. Black (B) and white (b) plumage in chickens shows incomplete dominance. What are the genotypes of the
parents if the progeny are present in a 0:1:1 ratio of black:grey:white?
A. BB and bb
B. Bb and bb
C. Bb and Bb
D. BB and Bb
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15. “Crisscross inheritance” describes a pedigree where an affected male passes a gene to his unaffected
daughter, who gives it to her affected son. This would describe the inheritance of:
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Color blindness
C. Cystic fibrosis
16. The “white” and “forked” genes in flies have a recombination frequency of about 30% when a test cross is
performed with a dihybrid fly. Of the 1000 offspring, how many are likely be the parental type?
A. 312
B. 501
C. 708
D. 1000
17. In cancer, tumor cells often cause changes in DNA sequence including deletions and translocations. In an
article published in November 2012, researchers tested the blood for free DNA in healthy patients and known
cancer patients, and were able to determine the presence of cancer without surgery on the tumor. Which
technique would the researchers used to find these chromosomal changes in multiple chromosomes?
A. Mass spectrometry
B. Next generation sequencing
C. mRNA sequencing
18. In protein sequencing, a number of bonds must be broken in order to create small enough peptides for the
mass spectrometer. Which of the following is NOT a bond that will be broken?
A. Ester
B. Peptide
C. Hydrogen
D. Disulfide
19. A male Drosophila is irradiated in a genetic screen experiment, producing a mutant bicoid gene in its sperm.
When the male is mated to a normal female the offspring:
A. Will have two tails
B. Will be unaffected carriers
C. Will produce all two-tailed progeny
20. In both the cortical reaction and the muscle cell:
A. An electrical signal travels along the first cell (sperm / motor neuron)
B. Cell surface signalling is used to trigger a response in the second cell (egg / muscle cell)
C. The smooth ER is used as a calcium storage organelle
21. Unlike maternal factors, inducer molecules are:
A. Important for gene activation
B. Secreted proteins
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C. Seen in the zygote of sea urchins
D. Often mRNA
22. The elongation of microtubules is seen in both:
A. Acrosome reaction; migration of mesoderm cells in gastrulation
B. Delivery of bicoid to Drosophila egg, cytokinesis during early blastula
C. Formation of dorsal lip; neural tube formation
23. Depolarization of a cell membrane is seen in both mature neurons and:
A. Cells undergoing meiosis
B. Fertilized sea urchin eggs
C. Frogs undergoing gastrulation
D. Neural plate cells
24. Synaptic vesicles fuse with the presynaptic membrane in response to:
A. Increased calcium in the cytosol
B. neurotransmitter released from the postsynaptic cell
C. The presence of Botulinum toxin
D. Membrane hyperpolarization
25. The disease myasthenia gravis is characterized by muscle weakness. Measurements of membrane potentials
before and after stimulation of the motor neuron are as follows:
Presynaptic terminal Muscle membrane
T tubule
Before stimulation
-70 mV
-70 mv
After stimulation
30 mV
-20 mV
Which hypothesis about the cause of this disease does this data support?
A. The calcium channels are overstimulated
B. The acetylcholine receptors are damaged
C. The sodium potassium pumps in the muscle cell do not function
D. The sodium potassium pumps in the motor neuron do not function
-70 mV
-70 mV
26. LDL complexes carry cholesterol in the blood and consist of protein,
phospholipids, cholesterol and small fatty acids. In the diagram of a section
through an LDL complex, which of the following symbols, indicated by X, Y
or Z, is most likely to represent fatty acid molecules called linoleate?
A. X
B. Y
C. Z
27. Cholesterol is transported by LDL complexes because it:
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Is too small to travel alone
It cannot freely diffuse across membranes
Would disrupt the plasma osmolarity and cause cells to swell
Is hydrophobic and does not dissolve well in blood
28. LDL receptors are part of what membrane transport system?
A. Cotransport
B. Phagocytic extension
C. Receptor-mediated endocytosis
D. Pinocytosis
E. Facilitated diffusion
29. A cell is fluorescently labeled with a probe that binds to LDL receptors. When examined, the following is
Vesicles transported
Vesicles transported
by kinesin
by dynein
Amount of
Which of the following hypotheses supports this result?
A. The cell requires additional cholesterol
B. The cell is currently importing large amounts of LDL
C. The cell regularly takes up cholesterol
30. Formation of LDL receptors involves
A. hydrolysis reactions forming ester bonds
B. dehydration reactions forming ester bonds
C. dehydration reactions forming peptide bonds
D. hydrolysis reactions forming peptide bonds
31. The most likely fate of cholesterol absorbed by a cell is the manufacture of:
A. Steroid hormones
B. Integral membrane proteins
C. Microtubules
D. Nucleic acids
E. Carbohydrates
32. The structure of linoleate, a fatty acid found inside an LDL complex is
diagrammed in this image. This molecule is:
A. Hydrophilic based on the presence of carbon-carbon double bonds
B. Unsaturated and dominated by nonpolar covalent bonds
C. Saturated and dominated by polar covalent bonds
Saturated and dominated by ionic bonds
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33. The cholesterol brought into the cell by an LDL complex is often modified by an enzyme called sterol Oacyltransferase. If no cellular energy in the form of ATP or GTP is needed for this reaction:
A. there is no activation energy
B. this is a form of passive diffusion
C. the free energy of the products is lower than the reactants
34. Linoleate is transported into the mitochondria and is broken into 2-carbon molecules called Acetyl-CoA.
Given their location, they must enter cellular respiration at:
A. Citric acid cycle
B. Glycolysis
C. Oxidative phosphorylation
35. Plants also manufacture fatty acid molecules like linoleate. Which photosynthetic reaction would produce
the carbon building blocks for a fatty acid molecule?
A. Light reactions
B. Calvin cycle
Oxidative phosphorylation
C. Substrate level phosphorylation
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Student ID: __________________________
Name: __________________________
Short Answer Section Version A
Answer concisely and accurately in the space provided. If your response contains both correct and incorrect
information, it will be marked incorrect.
1. (2 pts) Earlier in the exam you were asked the following question:
“The Drosophila oocyte extends microtubules into the nurse cells and dynein transports bicoid into the
oocyte via dynein. Where are the minus ends of the microtubules? A. Oocytes, or B. Nurse cells?”
In the space provided, explain your answer choice:
2. (2 pts) Excitatory neurons in the brain release the neurotransmitter glutamate, which binds to receptors on
postsynaptic target cells. This action of glutamate is an example which type of cell signaling discussed in
3. (8 pts) The gene product for the glutamate receptor can be alternatively sliced to create a more sensitive
binding site. Label the following diagram to match the book.
4. (2 pts) After synaptic release, glutamate molecules are removed from the synaptic cleft by a co-transporter
that depends on an ionic gradient. Based on your knowledge of distribution of ions across the cell
membrane, predict which ion travels down its gradient to transport glutamate back into the pre-synaptic
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5. (2 pts) Vesicles that contain newly synthesized glutamate receptors are transported to the axon terminals
after processing. Where were the receptors processed?
6. Sea urchin eggs are placed in seawater at either normal sodium concentration or high sodium concentration.
The eggs are then exposed to sea urchin sperm, and the membrane potential is measured. Below is shown
the membrane potential at normal sodium concentration.
a. (1 pt) Draw a line that shows the membrane potential in high sodium concentration.
b. (2 pts) On the Y axis the numbers represent units of
c. (2 pts) On the X axis the numbers represent units of
7. (2 pts) When the neurotransmitter serotonin binds to the postsynaptic membrane of a neuron it opens K+
channels. How will this affect the membrane potential ?
This is the end of the exam.
If you would like a scan of your short answer returned to you as a pdf via EEE, please fill
out the Rapid Return form available at the front of the room.
Bio 93 Final Exam Section F 2012 - A
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