Pharmacology exam: ……………………..Sample………………… title: exam Introduction to pharmacology:

Introduction to pharmacology:
Pharmacology exam:
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1. Lois Bronson 27 is about to begin aspirin therapy for rheumatoid arthritis. What is the
usual adult dosage for this indication?
a. 325mg p.o. once daily
b. 325mg p.o. q.i.d.
c. 650mg p.o. every 4 to 6 hours
d. 3.6 to 6g p.o. Daily in divided doses
Answer (D )
2. Before a patient begins aspirin therapy the nurse double checks her medical history.
Which of the following conditions contraindicate the use of aspirin?
a. Bleeding disorder
b. Cardiac malfunction
c. Vitamin b deficiency
d. Nervous system dysfunction
Answer ( A )
3. How soon after starting aspirin therapy got rheumatoid arthritis can the patient expect
to obtain considerable relief from inflammation?
a. 6hours
b. 12hours
c. 24hours
d. 48hours
Answer (C )
4. The nurse teaches Joelle Hudson 40 to recognize and report adverse drug reactions to
her medications. Which of the following adverse reactions can occur with prolonged
use of aspirin?
a. Weight gain
b. Fine motor tremors
c. Respiratory acidosis
d. Bilateral hearing loss
Answer ( D )
5. Ida young 78 is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. While taking a history the
nurse learns that ms .young frequently takes acetaminophen for knee pain caused by
osteoarthritis. The nurse cautions Mrs. Young not to exceed the maximum daily
dosage for acetaminophen. What is the maximum daily dosage?
a. 2g/day
b. 4g/day
c. 6g/day
d. 8g/day
Answer (B )
6. After a patient takes a dose of acetaminophen where in the body is the drug absorbed?
a. Liver
b. Kidney
c. Gi tract
d. Oral mucosa
Answer ( C )
7. Although acetaminophen causes few drug interactions and interaction can occur if a
patient takes which of the following drugs?
a. Cholestyramine
b. Propranolol
c. Phenytoin
d. Digoxin
Answer (A )
8. The nurse teaches Cecile McGhee 67 how to prevent and manage adverse drug
reactions to her medications. Long term use of high doses of acetaminophen may
cause which of the following adverse reactions?
a. Gi bleeding
b. Arrhythmias
c. Hyperglycemia
d. Hepatotoxity
Answer (D )
9. The nurse should withhold acetaminophen and notify the physician if a patient
develops which of the following adverse reactions to the drug?
a. Rash
b. Sore throat
c. Blurred vision
d. Epigastric discomfort
Answer ( A )
10. Keith 44 takes naproxen 250mg p.o. b.i.d for ankylosing spondylitis. What type of
nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (nsaid) is naproxen?
a. Phenylacetic acid derivative
b. Anthralinic acid derivative
c. Indoleacetic acid derivative
d. Propionic acid derivative
Answer (D )
11. A nurse takes a patient’s drug and finds that the patient takes captopril for
hypertension. Concomitant use of naproxen and captopril may cause which of the
following drug interactions?
a. Increased naproxen toxicity
b. Decreased captopril metabolism
c. Decreased effectiveness of captopril
d. Increased naproxen blood concentration
Answer ( C )
12. During a drug history the nurse discovers that her patient takes several medications
including naproxen. Which of the following drugs may interact with naproxen?
a. Digoxin
b. Lithium
c. Insulin
d. Hydrochlorithiazide
Answer ( B )
13. During nsaid therapy the nurse monitors her patient Cameron Michaels 42 for adverse
reactions. What of the following other adverse reactions are likely to occur?
a. Hypertension and arrthymias
b. Polyuria and polydipsia
c. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance
d. Tinnitus, vertigo, and confusion
Answer (D )
14. A Diana lama 27 develops a urinary tract infection. To relieve the pain, burning,
urgency, and frequency caused by this infection the physician is most likely to
prescribe which of the following drugs?
a. Aspirin
b. Indomethacin
c. Acetaminophen
d. Phenazopyridine
Answer ( D )
15. Marshall Lipton 59 is prescribed an nsaid to relieve pain and inflammation related to
acute gouty arthritis. Before he leaves the office what should the nurse caution him to
a. Avoid opening machinery until he becomes accustomed to the drug’s effects
b. Take the drug on an empty stomach to enhance absorption
c. Avoid concurrent use of over the counter nsaids
d. Take the drug as prescribed for at least 4 to 6 weeks
Answer (C )
16. Annelle stokes 56 is prescribed an nsaid for musculoskeletal inflammation and pain.
According to her medical history she has essential hypertension and takes an ace
inhibitor and beta-blocker. Adding an nsaid to her regimen may have which of the
following effects?
a. It may impair renal excretion of the nsaid
b. It may decrease antihypertensive effectiveness
c. It may result in an increased loss of taste(dysgeusia)
d. It may impair absorption of the ace inhibitor
Answer (B )
1. Marybeth nelson 56 receives morphine sulfate 4mg intravenously for severe pain
caused by a traumatic injury. Which of the following conditions would intraindicative
intravenously administration of morphine sulfate?
a. Pregnancy
b. Heart failure
c. Upper airway obstructing
d. Reduced blood volume
Answer (C )
2. A patient asks her nurse how long after the i.v. injection of morphine wills the pain
from her broken ankle be relieved. How soon after i.v. administration does morphine
reach its peak concentration?
a. Within 3 to 5 minutes
b. Within 8 to 10 minutes
c. Within 13 to 15 minutes
d. Within 20 to 40 minutes
Answer ( D )
3. Morphine is frequently prescribed for its analgesics effect. However this drug also
can be prescribed for which of the following effects?
a. To reduce intracranial pressure
b. To decrease dyspnea in pulmonary edema
c. To treat billary colic
d. To inhibit skeletal muscle contraction
Answer (B )
4. The nurse monitors a patient for adverse reactions to morphine. All narcotic agonists
can cause which of the following adverse reactions?
a. Bradycardia
b. Miosis
c. Hypothermia
d. Photophobia
Answer (B )
5. For Alonzo Prader 22, the physician prescribes butorphanol tartrate 2mg i.m. every 3
to 4 hours p.r.n for pain. Why isn’t this mixed agonist-antagonist administered orally?
a. The drug is not available in oral form
b. Digestive enzymes destroy oral butorphanol
c. The drug is extremely irritating to the gi mucosa
d. The stomach’s acidic environment inhibits drug distribution
Answer ( A )
6. Although researchers have not identified the exact mechanism of action of the mixed
narcotic agonist antagonists they believe that butorphanol acts at which of the
following sites?
a. Dorsal horn of the spinal cord
b. Peripheral nerve ending
c. Cerebellum
d. Limbic system
Answer (D )
1. For sandra blaney 40 the physician prescribes flurazepam (dalmane) to treat insomnia. The
physician could have prescribed which of the following other benzodiazepines for Mrs. Blaney?
a. Ethchlorvynol
b. Estazolam
c. Secobarbital
d. Chloral hydrate
Answer (B )
2. When reviewing Kelly duval's medication history the nurse finds that she takes an oral
contraceptive. An interaction between flurazepam and an oral contraceptive may cause which of
the following effects?
a. Decreased oral contraceptive effectiveness
b. Decreased flurazepam effectiveness
c. Excessive sedation
d. Excessive fluid retention
Answer ( C )
3. The nurse teaches Beatrice hand to identify and report adverse drug reactions to flurazepam.
Ms.hand is most likely to experience which of the following adverse reactions?
a. Epigastric distress
b. Headache
c. Blurred vision
d. Hangover effects
Answer ( D )
4. Simon detweiler would be more likely to experience dose related dizziness and ataxia if he has
which of the following disease?
a. Pulmonary disease
b. Heart disease
c. Liver disease
d. Renal disease
Answer (C )
5. Before undergoing colon resection, Russell timbers 58 is prescribed phenobarbital (luminal)
100mg intramuscularly for preoperative sedation. How soon before surgery is phenobarbital
usually given?
a. 30 to 45 minutes
b. 60 to 90 minutes
c. 2 to 3 hours
d. 6 to 8 hours
Answer (B )
6. The nurse checks marvine kane's medical history carefully before administering phenobarbital.
Which of the following conditions would require cautious use of parental phenobarbital?
a. Porphyria
b. Nephritis
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Hypertension
Answer ( D )
7. After receiving phenobarbital a patient asks the nurse how long its effects will last. Which of
the following factors helps determine phenobarbital’s duration of action?
a. Drug absorption site
b. Drug dosage
c. Rate of drug metabolism
d. Drug distribution sites
Answer ( C )
8. The nurse monitors Brandon welsch for adverse reactions to phenobarbital. Which of the
following cardiovascular reactions is he most likely to experience?
a. Extrasystoles
b. Bradycardia
c. Mild hypertension
d. Supraventricular tachycardia
Answer ( B )
9. Which of the following preexisting conditions would predispose a person to an allergic
reaction to phenobarbital?
a. Asthma
b. Renal insufficiency
c. Seizure disorder
d. Cerebrovascular insufficiency
Answer (A )
10. Meg Ellison 71 receives a prescription for ethchlorvynol (placidyl) 0.5g p.o.h.s to treat
simple insomnia. How long can miss Ellison take ethchlorvynol before it loses its effectiveness?
2 weeks
1 month
3 months
Answer ( B )
11. After taking a dose of ethchlorvynol, how much should a patient begin to feel sleepy?
a. Immediately
b. In 5 to 10minutes
c. In 15 to 45 minutes
d. In 1 hour
Answer ( C )
12. The nurse cautions a patient not to increase her prescribed ethchlorvynol dosage. Why not?
a. Too rapid dosage increases can cause dose related drug reactions
b. Rebound insomnia may occur if the dosage exceeds the maximum
c. Increased dosages do not increase the drug's effectiveness
d. High dosages can produce cns depression of the respiratory center
Answer ( D )
13. The nurse investigates `Sharon webb's medical history. Drugs from which of the following
classes can interact with ethchlorvynol?
a. Oral anticoagulants
b. Bronchodilators
c. Antihypertensive
d. Cardiac glycosides
Answer (A )
14. When teaching about ethchlorvynol therapy, the nurse should include information about
which of the following important points?
a. Risk of drug dependencies
b. Methods of diluting the drug
c. Possibility of developing amnesia
d. The need to take the drug with milk
Answer ( A )
15. Regina Keyes 83 is hospitalized after hip replacement surgery. She tells her even6ing nurse
that while her pain is being well controlled, she has difficulty sleeping in a strange environment.
The house physician is notified and prescribes secobarbital (seconal) 100mg h.s for miss keyes.
What symptoms may miss keyes exhibit when using this hypnotic due to her age?
a. Apprehension and nervousness
b. Euphoria and talkativeness
c. Headache and anorexia
d. Excitement and confusion
Answer (D )
1. Anne scovil 60 takes trancypromine (parnate), as prescribed for depression. What type of
agents is tranylcypromine?
a. Mao inbitor
b. Tricyclic antidepressant
c. Second generation antidepressant
d. Lithium preparation
Answer ( A )
2. Cheryl pointer 47 is taking amitriptyline (elavil) 50mg p.o.daily for depression. What is the
maximum amount of amitriptyline that she may take?
a. 100mg daily
b. 150mg daily
c. 200mg daily
d. 300mg daily
Answer ( D )
3. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic depressant. The physician could have prescribed which of the
following other tricyclic antidepressants for his patient?
a. Bupropion hydrochloride
b. Fuoxetine hydrochloride
c. Desipramine hydrochloride
d. Phenelzine sulfate
Answer (C )
4. How soon after amitriptyline therapy begins should a patient notice an antidepressant
a. 6 to 8 hours
b. 12 to 24 hours
c. 3 to 6 days
d. 10 to 14days
Answer ( D )
5. Marion bush 46 is diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder. Which of the following
tricyclic antidepressants may b5e used to treat this psychiatric disorder?
a. Trimipramine maleate
b. Clomipramine hydrochloride
c. Imipramie hydrochloride
d. Nortriptylie hydrochloride
Answer ( B )
6. Arnold litlow 53 is prescribed sertraline (zoloft) therapy for depression. He probably will
receive which of the following initial dosage?
25mg p.o.daily
40mg p.o.daily
50mg p.o.daily
80mg p.o.daily
Answer (C )
7. The nurse reviews sam cavanaugh's medications history. Use of which of the following in the
past 14days would contraindicate or postpone sertraline therapy for mr. Cavanaugh?
a. An antihypertensive
b. A bronchodilator
c. An anticoagulator
d. An mao inhibitor
Answer ( D )
8. After an oral dose how soon does sertraline achieve a peak concentration level?
a. In 1 to 2 hours
b. In 2.5 to 3.6 hours
c. In 4.5 to 8.4 hours
d. In 10 to 12 hours
Answer (C )
9. The nurse teaches steve walker to note adverse drug reactions. Sertraline can cause which of
the following adverse reactions?
a. Restlessness
b. Sexual dysfunction
c. Palpitations
d. Seizures
Answer ( B )